10.8 - Universal Mock Examination 1

Format: 100 original EPA 608-style multiple-choice questions
Distribution: 25 Core + 25 Type I + 25 Type II + 25 Type III
Testing condition: Closed book
Suggested practice target: 2 hours unless the selected approved provider uses a different limit
Scoring: Score Core, Type I, Type II, and Type III separately
Important: These are original certification-preparation questions. They are not actual, leaked, or official EPA or certifying-provider examination questions.

Instructions

Select the one best answer for each question. Complete all 100 questions without notes, internet access, or the answer file when using this as a readiness assessment.

Read all four choices before answering. Pay special attention to words such as not, except, best, first, maximum, minimum, absolute, gauge, current, and required.

Use the separate answer file only after the full attempt is complete. Record uncertain answers so that correct guesses are still reviewed.

Core — Questions 1–25

Question 1

Which statement BEST describes the role of stratospheric ozone?

A. It is the principal refrigerant used in low-pressure chillers.

B. It absorbs much of the harmful ultraviolet radiation reaching Earth.

C. It increases the oxygen content of recovery cylinders.

D. It prevents all infrared radiation from leaving Earth.

Question 2

Why can one chlorine atom released from a CFC destroy many ozone molecules in the stratosphere?

A. Chlorine is regenerated in the catalytic ozone-destruction cycle.

B. Chlorine freezes ozone into a solid.

C. Chlorine increases the density of the troposphere.

D. Chlorine converts all oxygen directly into nitrogen.

Question 3

Which refrigerant family contains chlorine and therefore has a nonzero ozone-depletion potential?

A. HFC

B. HCFC

C. HFO

D. Carbon dioxide

Question 4

What is the Montreal Protocol?

A. A U.S. cylinder transportation standard

B. An international agreement controlling ozone-depleting substances

C. A state HVAC licensing examination

D. A manufacturer refrigerant warranty program

Question 5

During service, which action is consistent with the Section 608 venting prohibition?

A. Vent refrigerant whenever the appliance is below 50 lb full charge.

B. Vent an HFC because it has zero ODP.

C. Release a refrigerant mixture after diluting it with nitrogen.

D. Recover the refrigerant rather than intentionally release it.

Question 6

A technician services a passenger-car air conditioner for payment. Which certification program primarily applies?

A. Section 608 Type I

B. Section 608 Type III

C. Section 609

D. Universal Section 608 only

Question 7

Which activity generally requires Section 608 technician certification even though it is not defined as “opening an appliance”?

A. Attaching or detaching service gauges

B. Replacing external pipe insulation

C. Painting the cabinet

D. Tightening a mounting bolt that does not disturb the refrigerant circuit

Question 8

Which term means removing refrigerant from an appliance and storing it in an external container without necessarily processing it?

A. Recycle

B. Recover

C. Dehydrate

D. Reclaim

Question 9

A recovery device can pull refrigerant from an appliance even after the appliance compressor has been removed. How is that recovery device classified?

A. System-dependent

B. Low-pressure only

C. Disposable

D. Self-contained

Question 10

Ordinary system-dependent recovery equipment may not be used on an appliance when the appliance full charge is:

A. More than 5 lb

B. More than 15 lb, unless the equipment is permanently attached as a pump-out unit

C. 50 lb or more only

D. 200 lb or more only

Question 11

A recovery cylinder has a tare weight of 30 lb and a water capacity of 50 lb. Using the course 80% fill calculation, what gross cylinder weight corresponds to the maximum refrigerant fill?

A. 40 lb

B. 50 lb

C. 80 lb

D. 70 lb

Question 12

What should be done with an empty disposable refrigerant cylinder?

A. Refill it with recovered refrigerant.

B. Use it as a vacuum reservoir.

C. Do not refill it or use it as a recovery cylinder.

D. Mix several refrigerants in it for transport.

Question 13

A gauge reads 0 psig while open to the atmosphere. Approximately what absolute pressure exists at standard sea-level conditions?

A. 14.7 psia

B. 0 psia

C. 29.9 psia

D. -14.7 psia

Question 14

For a zeotropic refrigerant blend, which saturation reference is normally used when calculating superheat?

A. Bubble point

B. Critical pressure only

C. Freezing point

D. Dew point

Question 15

What is a likely result of moisture remaining in a refrigeration system?

A. It permanently raises refrigerant purity.

B. It prevents acid formation.

C. It eliminates the need for a filter-drier.

D. It can contribute to acid formation, corrosion, and restrictions.

Question 16

Which setup is correct for pressure testing a refrigeration system with nitrogen?

A. Oxygen cylinder connected directly to the system

B. Dry nitrogen used through a pressure regulator with downstream relief protection

C. Nitrogen cylinder connected without a regulator because nitrogen is inert

D. Compressed shop air with no regulator

Question 17

What is the most immediate hazard of liquid refrigerant contacting skin or eyes?

A. Permanent magnetization of metal tools

B. Ozone depletion inside the body

C. Electrical shock from the refrigerant

D. Frostbite and tissue injury

Question 18

A technician changes from one refrigerant to another using the same recovery machine. What should be done to minimize cross-contamination?

A. Intentionally mix the two refrigerants so the machine sees a uniform blend.

B. Add air to the recovery cylinder to separate the refrigerants.

C. Clear the previous refrigerant from the machine as required before using it on the new refrigerant.

D. Use the same cylinder for both refrigerants if both are HFCs.

Question 19

After refrigerant recovery and a repair, a technician stops when the system reaches 0 psig and prepares to charge. What important service step is still missing?

A. Deep evacuation/dehydration to remove air and moisture

B. Reclamation of the refrigerant inside the appliance

C. Pressurization with oxygen

D. Intentional venting of the remaining vapor

Question 20

During a standing-vacuum test, system pressure rises rapidly after the vacuum pump is isolated. What condition should be suspected first?

A. A leak or a significant path for gas entering the system

B. Perfect dehydration

C. A full recovery cylinder

D. Excessive liquid refrigerant subcooling

Question 21

At final disposal of a small appliance, the final processor must either recover the refrigerant or:

A. Assume it leaked out during transportation.

B. Cut the refrigerant lines outdoors.

C. Verify that acceptable prior recovery occurred.

D. Add nitrogen and vent the mixture.

Question 22

A technician evacuates refrigerant from an appliance with a full charge of 12 lb for disposal. Under the current Section 608 disposal record rule, how long must the required records be kept?

A. 3 years

B. 1 year

C. 30 days

D. For the life of the building

Question 23

The November 15, 1993 date used in recovery and evacuation requirements refers primarily to the manufacture or import date of:

A. The appliance cabinet

B. The refrigerant cylinder

C. The recovery/recycling equipment

D. The compressor motor

Question 24

Which statement about recovery speed is correct?

A. Shorter, larger-diameter hoses generally reduce flow restriction and can speed recovery.

B. Longer, smaller-diameter hoses always speed recovery by increasing friction.

C. Heating the receiving recovery cylinder is the preferred way to lower back pressure.

D. Closing all available access points always speeds recovery.

Question 25

Which condition is required for Universal Section 608 certification?

A. Pass Core only.

B. Pass Core and one equipment type under any conditions.

C. Pass Core, Type I, Type II, and Type III under the applicable secure proctored conditions.

D. Pass Section 609 instead of Type III.

Type I — Questions 26–50

Question 26

Assuming all factory-manufacture, factory-charge, and factory-hermetic-seal conditions are satisfied, what is the maximum refrigerant charge allowed by the Section 608 small-appliance definition?

A. 2 lb

B. 5 lb

C. 15 lb

D. 50 lb

Question 27

Which appliance is a typical Type I example when it meets the small-appliance definition?

A. Low-pressure absorption chiller

B. Residential split-system condensing unit

C. Supermarket compressor rack

D. Window air conditioner

Question 28

A recovery machine manufactured in 2025 is used on a small appliance whose compressor operates normally. What percentage of refrigerant must be recovered when using the percentage method?

A. 90%

B. 80%

C. 70%

D. 100%

Question 29

A post-1993 recovery machine is used on a small appliance with a failed compressor. What percentage applies under the percentage method?

A. 80%

B. 95%

C. 100%

D. 90%

Question 30

Which alternative can be used instead of the Type I percentage-recovery method?

A. Recover until the cylinder reaches 80% fill.

B. Evacuate the appliance to 25 mm Hg absolute.

C. Stop at 0 psig for every small appliance.

D. Evacuate the appliance to 4 in. Hg vacuum.

Question 31

When using system-dependent recovery on a small appliance with an operative compressor, what should normally be done with the appliance compressor?

A. Operate it so it assists refrigerant movement.

B. Disconnect it and recover only by gravity.

C. Reverse its electrical polarity.

D. Run it only after the refrigerant circuit has been opened.

Question 32

Why are both high- and low-side access points important when recovering from a small appliance with an inoperative compressor?

A. They increase the appliance refrigerant charge.

B. They allow the technician to bypass the venting prohibition.

C. They help remove refrigerant trapped on both sides of system restrictions.

D. They eliminate the need for a recovery device.

Question 33

During passive recovery from a small appliance with a failed compressor, which action can help release refrigerant trapped in compressor oil?

A. Freeze the compressor with ice.

B. Close both access fittings immediately.

C. Use controlled warming and, where taught, sharply strike/tap the compressor.

D. Add oxygen to the compressor shell.

Question 34

What is a process stub on a small appliance?

A. A reusable recovery cylinder valve.

B. A length of tubing that provides refrigerant access and can be resealed.

C. The compressor electrical terminal block.

D. A permanent automatic purge device.

Question 35

What should be done with a solderless piercing access fitting at the conclusion of Type I service?

A. Leave it installed permanently on every appliance.

B. Open it to atmosphere so pressure cannot build.

C. Remove it, restore/reseal the tubing, and leak check the repair.

D. Replace it with a disposable cylinder valve.

Question 36

A self-contained recovery machine is being used on a small appliance. Which statement is correct?

A. It requires the appliance compressor to operate.

B. It can recover only from the high side.

C. It is the same device as a vacuum pump used only for dehydration.

D. It has its own means to remove refrigerant from the appliance.

Question 37

Before creating a temporary access point on a charged small appliance, what should the technician do?

A. Prepare the recovery setup so refrigerant can be captured promptly.

B. Cut the line first and look for the refrigerant afterward.

C. Open the appliance to atmosphere to reduce pressure.

D. Heat the recovery cylinder to maximum pressure.

Question 38

A small appliance has a functioning compressor and a high-side process stub. Which approach is most consistent with the Type I system-dependent recovery method taught for an operative compressor?

A. Leave the compressor off and recover only through the suction side.

B. Add nitrogen to force refrigerant out while venting.

C. Operate the compressor and recover from the high side.

D. Connect a vacuum pump directly to a pressurized recovery cylinder.

Question 39

A Type I appliance compressor has failed. Which statement is MOST accurate?

A. Recovery is no longer required.

B. Only the low side may be accessed.

C. The recovery percentage is automatically 90% with post-1993 equipment.

D. Recovery is still required, but the technique must account for refrigerant trapped on both sides.

Question 40

Which use of a vacuum pump appears in the traditional Type I failed-compressor passive-recovery procedure?

A. Use it with a nonpressurized recovery container as specified for that recovery method.

B. Use it to pump refrigerant directly into a sealed disposable cylinder.

C. Use it to vent refrigerant through the pump exhaust.

D. Use it instead of any recovery container.

Question 41

Which statement about R-134a and R-12 is consistent with Type I exam preparation?

A. R-134a is a CFC with the same ODP as R-12.

B. R-134a is a common substitute used in many applications formerly served by R-12.

C. R-12 is an HFO with zero ODP.

D. The two refrigerants may always be mixed in the same recovery cylinder.

Question 42

What is the primary reason high-temperature flame contact with a refrigerant is dangerous?

A. It can form hazardous decomposition products.

B. It turns every refrigerant into oxygen.

C. It guarantees the refrigerant becomes nonflammable.

D. It makes the recovery cylinder lighter.

Question 43

A final disposer receives a small appliance that may still contain refrigerant. What is the disposer’s basic responsibility?

A. Vent any remaining refrigerant because the appliance is discarded.

B. Require Universal certification from the consumer who delivered it.

C. Fill the appliance with compressed air before crushing it.

D. Recover the refrigerant or verify that acceptable prior recovery occurred.

Question 44

Which information is part of the signed statement used to verify prior refrigerant recovery for a small appliance entering disposal?

A. Only the appliance serial number

B. Only the refrigerant pressure

C. Name, address, and date

D. Only the scrap value of the appliance

Question 45

A scrap processor has a regular commercial supplier delivering many small appliances. Which alternative can satisfy the prior-recovery verification process when properly established?

A. A handwritten “empty” sticker placed by anyone

B. A qualifying contract with the regular supplier

C. A verbal statement from a passerby

D. A promise to recover refrigerant after the appliances are crushed

Question 46

Which situation can support a statement that refrigerant had already escaped before a small appliance reached the final disposer?

A. An accidental system failure that caused the refrigerant loss

B. Intentional venting during loading

C. A request to avoid using recovery equipment

D. A deliberate line cut made to speed scrapping

Question 47

How long should a final processor retain the required small-appliance signed statements or qualifying contracts?

A. 30 days

B. 3 years

C. 6 months

D. Until the appliance manufacturer closes

Question 48

A field-connected mini-split contains 4.2 lb of refrigerant. Why is the 5-lb value alone not enough to make it a Type I small appliance?

A. Type I requires at least 50 lb of refrigerant.

B. Any appliance below 5 lb is automatically Type III.

C. Mini-splits are always Section 609 equipment.

D. The complete system is not fully manufactured, charged, and hermetically sealed at a factory.

Question 49

During recovery from a small appliance, why may controlled warming of a cold evaporator help?

A. It converts the appliance into a Type II system.

B. It allows intentional venting.

C. It raises refrigerant vapor pressure and helps trapped liquid evaporate.

D. It lowers cylinder weight.

Question 50

Which statement BEST distinguishes the Type I disposal certification exception from ordinary Type I service?

A. It allows anyone to replace a compressor without certification.

B. It applies to the disposal activity, while ordinary service on the refrigerant circuit still requires appropriate certification.

C. It eliminates the need to recover refrigerant at disposal.

D. It permits intentional refrigerant release only at scrap yards.

Type II — Questions 51–75

Question 51

A refrigerant has a liquid-phase saturation pressure of 120 psia at 104°F. How is it classified under Section 608?

A. Medium pressure

B. Low pressure

C. High pressure

D. Very high pressure

Question 52

A field-connected process cooler uses a medium-pressure refrigerant and does not meet the small-appliance or MVAC definitions. Which Section 608 certification applies to refrigerant-circuit service?

A. Type I

B. Section 609 only

C. Type III

D. Type II

Question 53

An oily trace is found around a brazed joint on a high-pressure system. What is the BEST next interpretation?

A. It proves the system is overcharged.

B. It is a possible leak indicator and the joint should be checked with an appropriate leak-detection method.

C. It proves air is in the system.

D. It proves the joint is leak-free.

Question 54

After refrigerant has been recovered, which gas is preferred for controlled pressure leak testing of a Type II system?

A. Acetylene

B. Oxygen

C. Compressed shop air

D. Dry nitrogen

Question 55

What is the current Section 608 annual leak-rate trigger for qualifying commercial refrigeration equipment?

A. 10%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 30%

Question 56

Before applying the current Section 608 leak-rate triggers in §82.157, which combination must be confirmed for the appliance?

A. At least 200 lb of refrigerant and a post-1993 recovery machine

B. At least 15 lb of any refrigerant with no exclusions

C. At least 50 lb full charge and an applicable class I or class II ozone-depleting refrigerant or blend

D. Any Type II appliance regardless of charge or refrigerant

Question 57

When accessible bulk liquid is present during Type II recovery, which procedure generally reduces recovery time?

A. Recover liquid first, then recover the remaining vapor.

B. Heat the recovery cylinder.

C. Close the liquid service valve and wait.

D. Recover vapor only until pressure is zero.

Question 58

A recovery cylinder becomes warm during recovery. What can controlled manufacturer-permitted cooling of the cylinder accomplish?

A. Lower cylinder pressure and recovery-machine back pressure

B. Increase the legal fill limit

C. Reclaim the refrigerant automatically

D. Eliminate the need for a scale

Question 59

After reaching the required evacuation endpoint, a technician isolates a Type II appliance and sees the pressure rise. What should the technician suspect?

A. The refrigerant has been reclaimed.

B. The cylinder tare weight changed.

C. Refrigerant may still be evaporating from oil or cold internal surfaces.

D. The appliance has become a low-pressure appliance.

Question 60

The restriction on ordinary system-dependent recovery equipment for an appliance above 15 lb is based on which quantity?

A. The amount recovered in the first minute

B. Only the refrigerant remaining after a leak

C. The recovery-cylinder tare weight

D. The appliance full charge

Question 61

Using recovery equipment manufactured in 2024, what is the required Table 1 level for a high-pressure appliance with a 150-lb full charge?

A. 0 in. Hg vacuum

B. 4 in. Hg vacuum

C. 10 in. Hg vacuum

D. 15 in. Hg vacuum

Question 62

Using recovery equipment manufactured in 2024, what is the required Table 1 level for a high-pressure appliance with a 260-lb full charge?

A. 0 in. Hg vacuum

B. 10 in. Hg vacuum

C. 15 in. Hg vacuum

D. 25 mm Hg absolute

Question 63

Using recovery equipment manufactured in 2024, what is the required Table 1 level for a medium-pressure appliance with a 250-lb full charge?

A. 0 in. Hg vacuum

B. 15 in. Hg vacuum

C. 4 in. Hg vacuum

D. 10 in. Hg vacuum

Question 64

What does the 200-lb value control in the Type II evacuation table?

A. The maximum recovery-cylinder fill

B. The definition of a small appliance

C. Which evacuation row applies to certain high- and medium-pressure appliances

D. The system-dependent recovery-equipment limit

Question 65

Which list contains only components whose removal makes the work major maintenance, service, or repair under the current Section 608 definition?

A. Fan motor, belt, air filter, drain pan

B. Filter-drier, service cap, thermostat, sight glass

C. Receiver, accumulator, service hose, gauge manifold

D. Compressor, condenser, evaporator, auxiliary heat-exchange coil

Question 66

A repair uncovers an opening with 5 in² of flow area for 20 minutes. How is the work classified?

A. Major, because the opening exceeds 4 in² for more than 15 minutes

B. Non-major because no compressor is removed

C. Non-major because the opening is below 15 in²

D. Major only if the appliance contains more than 200 lb

Question 67

For a qualifying non-major opening of a medium-, high-, or very-high-pressure appliance when all regulatory conditions are met, the appliance must be evacuated to no higher than:

A. 5 psig

B. 10 psig

C. 0 psig

D. 25 mm Hg absolute

Question 68

A leak prevents a Type II appliance from reaching the normal Table 1 level without substantial contamination. What should be done where possible?

A. Vent until pressure reaches zero.

B. Isolate leaking from non-leaking components; evacuate non-leaking portions to Table 1 and the leaking portion to the lowest attainable level not above 0 psig.

C. Add oxygen to locate the leak.

D. Open every component at the same pressure.

Question 69

Which service-practice exception uses a pressure ceiling of no higher than 5 psig before the applicable part is opened?

A. The normal Table 1 evacuation of a low-pressure appliance

B. Every non-major repair

C. Every high-pressure appliance disposal

D. A qualifying oil change

Question 70

What is a major concern after a hermetic compressor burnout?

A. The refrigerant automatically becomes reclaimed.

B. The recovery cylinder can be filled without a scale.

C. The system pressure category changes to low pressure.

D. Acid, carbon, moisture, and contaminated oil may be distributed through the system.

Question 71

What should a technician do before energizing a reciprocating compressor after service?

A. Close the discharge service valve tightly.

B. Operate it under deep vacuum to dry the windings.

C. Confirm that the discharge path is open.

D. Bypass the high-pressure safety control.

Question 72

During dehydration of a hermetic system, a technician suggests starting the refrigerant compressor to pull the remaining deep vacuum faster. What is the correct response?

A. Start it because vacuum eliminates electrical hazards.

B. Do not energize it under deep vacuum; use the external vacuum equipment.

C. Bypass the overload and run it continuously.

D. Add oxygen and then start it.

Question 73

When a crankcase heater is operating as intended during an off cycle, what condition is it helping maintain?

A. A warmer compressor/oil region that discourages refrigerant migration into the oil

B. A colder compressor than the rest of the system to attract refrigerant

C. A closed discharge service valve

D. A vacuum inside the recovery cylinder

Question 74

A high-pressure safety control repeatedly trips because head pressure is excessive. What is the proper response?

A. Diagnose and correct causes such as poor condenser heat rejection, noncondensables, overcharge, or restriction.

B. Increase the recovery-cylinder fill limit.

C. Bypass the control so the compressor stays on.

D. Open the refrigerant circuit while it is fully charged.

Question 75

Before using equipment on a very-high-pressure refrigerant, what must be confirmed?

A. Only the hose color

B. That hoses, gauges, recovery equipment, and cylinders are rated and compatible for the pressure and refrigerant

C. Only that the fitting threads connect

D. That the appliance charge is below 5 lb

Type III — Questions 76–100

Question 76

Under the current Section 608 definition, a low-pressure appliance uses a refrigerant with liquid-phase saturation pressure:

A. Below 45 psia at 104°F

B. Between 45 and 170 psia at 104°F

C. Between 170 and 355 psia at 104°F

D. Above 355 psia at 104°F only

Question 77

A low-pressure chiller shows moisture entering the refrigerant circuit even though no refrigerant spray is visible at the leak. Which operating condition best explains this?

A. The refrigerant side is below atmospheric pressure and can draw air/moisture inward.

B. The chiller must be above 355 psia.

C. The purge unit creates refrigerant from water.

D. Low-pressure refrigerant has no pressure-temperature relationship.

Question 78

Air has entered a low-pressure chiller and accumulated in the condenser. Which component is intended to remove that noncondensable gas while limiting refrigerant loss?

A. Evaporator water box

B. Purge unit

C. Oil pump

D. Expansion device

Question 79

Frequent purge-unit operation on a low-pressure chiller most strongly suggests:

A. The system has no leaks.

B. The refrigerant is fully reclaimed.

C. Air is entering the system through a leak or infiltration path.

D. The recovery cylinder is overfilled.

Question 80

During a traditional Type III leak test, chiller pressure reaches 10 psig before the leak has been located. What should the technician do about further pressurization?

A. Add oxygen to increase detector sensitivity.

B. Continue to 15 psig because 15 psig is the chiller leak-test limit.

C. Continue until a relief device opens.

D. Do not increase pressure above the Type III exam-preparation maximum.

Question 81

Which method is normally preferred before adding nitrogen to raise pressure for a low-pressure chiller leak test?

A. Compressed air heating

B. Oxygen injection

C. Controlled hot water or the built-in approved heating/pressurization method

D. Opening the rupture disc

Question 82

On an open-drive low-pressure chiller, which component is an important refrigerant leak-check location?

A. Chilled-water strainer only

B. Shaft seal

C. Building thermostat

D. Recovery-cylinder foot ring

Question 83

A recovery operator is ready to switch a low-pressure chiller from bulk-refrigerant removal to vapor-only recovery. What should have been removed first where accessible?

A. The purge-unit desiccant

B. All compressor oil

C. The chilled water

D. The bulk liquid refrigerant

Question 84

Why must vapor recovery continue after the accessible liquid refrigerant has been removed from a low-pressure chiller?

A. Removing vapor raises the chiller pressure.

B. Vapor recovery is required only to cool the building.

C. A substantial refrigerant vapor mass can still remain.

D. Vapor recovery converts the refrigerant into water.

Question 85

The high side of a recovery unit connected to a low-pressure appliance reaches 10 psig and the unit shuts down. How should this traditional Type III behavior be interpreted?

A. The high-pressure cutout is performing its protective function.

B. The appliance has reached its 25 mm Hg absolute endpoint.

C. The recovery vessel rupture disc must have opened.

D. The chiller should be pressurized above 15 psig.

Question 86

What is the traditional Type III rupture-disc value associated with a low-pressure recovery vessel?

A. 15 psig

B. 10 psig

C. 5 psig

D. 25 mm Hg absolute

Question 87

Why must water be circulated or otherwise managed during deep recovery from a low-pressure chiller?

A. To increase the ODP of the refrigerant

B. To prevent water from freezing as refrigerant pressure and saturation temperature fall

C. To raise the recovery-cylinder tare weight

D. To reclaim refrigerant inside the evaporator

Question 88

A tube leak is suspected before recovering a low-pressure chiller. Under the Type III exam procedure, what should be done with the water sides?

A. Increase water pressure to force water into the refrigerant circuit.

B. Drain the evaporator and condenser water sides before recovery.

C. Add refrigerant to both water boxes.

D. Leave all water trapped and stop evaluating the leak.

Question 89

Why can system pressure rise after a low-pressure chiller first reaches the required recovery vacuum?

A. The refrigerant pressure classification has changed.

B. The chilled-water pump has reclaimed refrigerant.

C. The purge unit has created oxygen.

D. Refrigerant can continue to come out of solution from oil or evaporate from internal surfaces.

Question 90

Before removing oil from a traditional oil-lubricated low-pressure chiller, to what temperature is the oil heated for Type III exam preparation?

A. 130°F

B. 115°F

C. 100°F

D. 150°F

Question 91

Under the current special oil-change provision, the low-pressure appliance or isolated portion may be opened at no higher than:

A. 25 mm Hg absolute

B. 0 psig

C. 5 psig

D. 10 psig

Question 92

A technician proposes connecting the charging hose to a condenser purge connection on a centrifugal chiller. Which connection is specified for the Type III charging procedure instead?

A. Water-box vent

B. Evaporator charging valve

C. Recovery-vessel relief port

D. Oil-drain valve

Question 93

A technician begins charging a deeply evacuated low-pressure chiller by feeding bulk liquid directly into the evaporator. What is the main immediate concern?

A. Rapid flashing can lower refrigerant temperature enough to freeze water in the tubes.

B. The refrigerant will automatically become reclaimed.

C. The chiller will become a very-high-pressure appliance.

D. The purge unit will stop all phase change.

Question 94

A low-pressure appliance has been recovered to 25 mm Hg absolute under normal Table 1 conditions. What does that reading represent?

A. The recovery cylinder is 25% full.

B. The appliance is at 25 in. Hg vacuum.

C. The appliance is at 25 psig.

D. The required normal Type III evacuation endpoint has been reached.

Question 95

Which statement about 25 mm Hg absolute is correct?

A. It means the same as 25 in. Hg vacuum.

B. It is the recovery-cylinder fill limit.

C. It is an absolute-pressure value and must not be confused with inches of mercury vacuum.

D. It is the Type III leak-test maximum.

Question 96

For a qualifying non-major opening of a low-pressure appliance, the appliance may be pressurized to no higher than:

A. 15 psig

B. 5 psig

C. 10 psig

D. 0 psig

Question 97

Which statement correctly distinguishes a refrigerant monitor from an oxygen monitor in a machinery room?

A. They always measure exactly the same quantity.

B. A refrigerant monitor proves a space is not confined.

C. An oxygen monitor identifies the refrigerant type.

D. A refrigerant monitor measures refrigerant concentration, while an oxygen monitor measures oxygen concentration.

Question 98

A chiller machinery room contains a deep service pit. Which statement is the safest regulatory interpretation?

A. Every refrigeration machinery room is automatically a permit-required confined space.

B. The pit and room must be evaluated by their actual configurations and hazards; the label “machinery room” alone does not decide OSHA confined-space status.

C. No area in a machinery room can ever be a confined space.

D. A refrigerant monitor automatically determines OSHA confined-space classification.

Question 99

Before opening a chiller water box, what should be verified?

A. Only that the refrigerant recovery cylinder is empty.

B. Only that the purge unit is running.

C. That water-side hazardous energy is isolated and trapped/static pressure has been relieved.

D. That the building thermostat is off.

Question 100

What is the function of a rupture disc on low-pressure chiller equipment?

A. Provide non-reclosing emergency overpressure relief.

B. Continuously meter refrigerant into the evaporator.

C. Remove noncondensables during normal operation.

D. Measure chilled-water flow.

Score Record

Project readiness target: at least 22/25 in each section, with no unresolved critical safety or current-regulation error. A second independent closed-book result at the same section target is required before final readiness.

Record every missed, guessed, or low-confidence question in 10.10 - Error Analysis and Remediation.md.